Hi all, not surprisingly I got this wrong but am at a loss as to why Black would play 2...Qe6 effectively trading his queen for rook following white's seemingly innocuous Kb1. Can a better player than me please enlighten me? thanks!
It seems that White is aiming for Re7, leading to Qb7 or Qa7 mate. If he plays this immediately however, Black replies ...Qg8+, forcing Whites king towards the center of the board. 2.Kb1 gives him a2 as an escape hatch. ...Qe6 tries to delay the inevitable as long as possible, a typical computer move.
PS, I didn't see any of this at the time. Saw nothing, nada, zip. Missed it too.
Can a better player than me please enlighten me?
thanks!